AMC 10 Step by Step

2020 AMC 10B Problem 18

P16-20~5 minPrint

An urn contains one red ball and one blue ball. A box of extra red and blue balls lies nearby. George performs the following operation four times: he draws a ball from the urn at random and then takes a ball of the same color from the box and returns those two matching balls to the urn. After the four iterations the urn contains six balls. What is the probability that the urn contains three balls of each color?

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Key insight

Every order of two red and two blue draws has chance 1/30: denominators are always 2, 3, 4, 5 and numerators 1, 2, 1, 2. There are 6 orders.

Solution

  1. What must happen. The urn starts with 11 red and 11 blue, and each draw adds one ball of the drawn color. To finish with 33 of each, George must draw red exactly twice and blue exactly twice, in some order.
  2. One order: red, red, blue, blue. Follow the urn step by step.
DrawUrn beforeDrawsChanceUrn after
111R, 11Bred12\frac1222R, 11B
222R, 11Bred23\frac2333R, 11B
333R, 11Bblue14\frac1433R, 22B
433R, 22Bblue25\frac2533R, 33B

The chance of this order is
12×23×14×25=4120=130.\frac12 \times \frac23 \times \frac14 \times \frac25 = \frac{4}{120} = \frac{1}{30}.
3. Another order: red, blue, blue, red. The chances are 12\frac12, then 13\frac13, then 24\frac24, then 25\frac25. The product is again 1×1×2×22×3×4×5=130\frac{1 \times 1 \times 2 \times 2}{2 \times 3 \times 4 \times 5} = \frac{1}{30}.
4. Why every order gives 130\frac{1}{30}. The denominators (bottoms) are always 2,3,4,52, 3, 4, 5, because the urn gains one ball per draw. The numerators (tops) are the number of balls of the color drawn: the first red draw has 11 red to pick, the second has 22, and the same for blue. So the tops are always 1,2,1,21, 2, 1, 2 in some order.
5. Count the orders. Choose which 22 of the 44 draws are red: (42)=6\binom42 = 6 orders (RRBB, RBRB, RBBR, BRRB, BRBR, BBRR).
6. Total.
6×130=15.6 \times \frac{1}{30} = \frac{1}{5}.

The answer is (B) 15\boxed{\textbf{(B)}\ \frac15}.

Why this works

In this kind of urn, the chance of a sequence depends only on how many of each color were drawn, not on the order. So the chance of an ending mix equals (number of orders) times (chance of one order). Whenever draws change what is in the urn, compare two orders first. If they give the same product, you can skip drawing the whole tree.

Alternative approach

Draw a probability tree and add up the paths that end at 33 red, 33 blue. By symmetry, the paths that start with red contribute the same as those that start with blue. Starting with red, the paths RRBB, RBRB and RBBR each have chance 130\frac{1}{30}, for a total of 330=110\frac{3}{30} = \frac{1}{10}. Doubling gives 15\frac15.

Concise solution

A shorter write-up, the way contest solutions are usually written. It may take a different route from the solution above.

Ending with three of each color means exactly two red draws and two blue draws in some order. Compute the probability of one specific order, say red, red, blue, blue:

  • Draw 1: 11 red of 22 balls, probability 12\tfrac12; urn becomes 2R,1B2R, 1B.
  • Draw 2: 23\tfrac23; urn becomes 3R,1B3R, 1B.
  • Draw 3: blue, 14\tfrac14; urn becomes 3R,2B3R, 2B.
  • Draw 4: blue, 25\tfrac25.

Product: 12⋅23⋅14⋅25=4120=130\tfrac12 \cdot \tfrac23 \cdot \tfrac14 \cdot \tfrac25 = \tfrac{4}{120} = \tfrac{1}{30}.

Any other order gives the same product: the denominators are always 2,3,4,52, 3, 4, 5 (the urn grows by one each time), and the numerators are the current counts of the drawn color, which are 11 then 22 for red and 11 then 22 for blue regardless of interleaving. So each of the (42)=6\binom42 = 6 orders has probability 130\tfrac1{30}.

Total probability: 6⋅130=156 \cdot \tfrac{1}{30} = \tfrac15.

The answer is (B) 15\boxed{\textbf{(B)}\ \frac15}.

Review in the AoPS books

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Problem © Mathematical Association of America (MAA), American Mathematics Competitions. Reproduced for non-commercial educational use. Solution and commentary are original to this site.