AMC 10 Step by Step

2007 AMC 10B Problem 22

P21-25~4 minPrint

A player chooses one of the numbers 11 through 44 . After the choice has been made, two regular four-sided (tetrahedral) dice are rolled, with the sides of the dice numbered 11 through 4.4. If the number chosen appears on the bottom of exactly one die after it has been rolled, then the player wins 11 dollar. If the number chosen appears on the bottom of both of the dice, then the player wins 22 dollars. If the number chosen does not appear on the bottom of either of the dice, the player loses 11 dollar. What is the expected return to the player, in dollars, for one roll of the dice?

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Key insight

Of the 16 equal rolls, your number shows on both dice in 1, on exactly one die in 6, and on neither in 9.

Solution

Which number the player picks does not matter; say it is 11. Two four-sided dice give 4×4=164 \times 4 = 16 equally likely rolls. Sort them by how many dice show a 11.

1. Both dice show 11: only (1,1)(1,1). That is 11 roll. Win $2\$2.
2. Exactly one die shows 11: the first is 11 and the second is 22, 33 or 44 (3 rolls), or the second is 11 and the first is 22, 33 or 44 (3 more). That is 66 rolls. Win $1\$1.
3. Neither die shows 11: each die has 33 other faces, so 3×3=93 \times 3 = 9 rolls. Lose $1\$1.
4. Check the count: 1+6+9=161 + 6 + 9 = 16.
5. Imagine playing all 1616 rolls once each. Total money:
1×2+6×1+9×(−1)=2+6−9=−1.1 \times 2 + 6 \times 1 + 9 \times (-1) = 2 + 6 - 9 = -1.
6. That is −1-1 dollar over 1616 games, so the average return per game is
−116.-\frac{1}{16}.

The answer is (B) −116\boxed{\textbf{(B)}\ -\frac{1}{16}}.

Why this works

Expected value is the average result per game: add up each payoff times how often it happens. With two dice, the 4×44 \times 4 grid of rolls lists every case equally, so counting squares gives exact weights. The answer is very close to zero, so a single miscount (like 33 instead of 66) or a sign slip changes the choice.

Concise solution

A shorter write-up, the way contest solutions are usually written. It may take a different route from the solution above.

Which number the player picks is irrelevant by symmetry; call it kk. Each die independently shows kk with probability 14\frac14 and something else with probability 34\frac34. Out of the 1616 equally likely rolls:

  • both dice show kk: 1⋅1=11 \cdot 1 = 1 roll, payoff +2+2;
  • exactly one shows kk: 1⋅3+3⋅1=61 \cdot 3 + 3 \cdot 1 = 6 rolls, payoff +1+1;
  • neither shows kk: 3⋅3=93 \cdot 3 = 9 rolls, payoff −1-1.

The expected return is
116(2)+616(1)+916(−1)=2+6−916=−116.\frac{1}{16}(2) + \frac{6}{16}(1) + \frac{9}{16}(-1) = \frac{2 + 6 - 9}{16} = -\frac{1}{16}.

The answer is (B) −116\boxed{\textbf{(B)}\ -\frac{1}{16}}.

Review in the AoPS books

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Problem © Mathematical Association of America (MAA), American Mathematics Competitions. Reproduced for non-commercial educational use. Solution and commentary are original to this site.