AMC 10 Step by Step

2004 AMC 10B Problem 11

P11-15~3 minPrint

Two eight-sided dice each have faces numbered 11 through 88 . When the dice are rolled, each face has an equal probability of appearing on the top. What is the probability that the product of the two top numbers is greater than their sum?

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Key insight

Count the rolls that fail: any roll with a 1, plus 2 and 2 (a tie). That is 16 of the 64 rolls.

Solution

There are 8×8=648 \times 8 = 64 equally likely rolls. Most of them should work, so count the ones that fail.

1. A die shows 11. Say the rolls are 11 and 55: product 55, sum 66. The product is always smaller, since 1×n=n1 \times n = n but the sum is n+1n + 1. So every roll with a 11 fails.
- First die is 11: 88 rolls. Second die is 11: 88 rolls. The roll (1,1)(1,1) is on both lists, so there are 8+8−1=158 + 8 - 1 = 15 such rolls.
2. Both dice are 22 or more. Try the smallest cases:
- 22 and 22: product 44, sum 44. A tie, so it fails (the product must be greater).
- 22 and 33: product 66, sum 55. Works.
- 33 and 33: product 99, sum 66. Works.

Once both numbers are at least 22 and not both equal to 22, the product wins. For example, with 22 and nn: the product is n+nn + n and the sum is 2+n2 + n, and n+nn + n is bigger as soon as n>2n > 2. Larger first numbers only make the product grow faster.
3. So the failing rolls are the 1515 with a 11, plus (2,2)(2,2): 1616 rolls.
4. The rolls that work: 64−16=4864 - 16 = 48. The probability is
4864=34.\frac{48}{64} = \frac{3}{4}.

The answer is (C) 34\boxed{\textbf{(C)}\ \frac{3}{4}}.

Why this works

When almost everything works, count the few cases that fail and subtract. Trying the smallest numbers first shows where the trouble is: a 11 makes the product small, and 22 and 22 is the one exact tie. Watch for rolls like (1,1)(1,1) that land on two lists at once.

Alternative approach

Use algebra. With rolls mm and nn, the condition mn>m+nmn > m + n becomes mn−m−n+1>1mn - m - n + 1 > 1, and the left side factors as (m−1)(n−1)>1(m-1)(n-1) > 1. Now m−1m - 1 and n−1n - 1 are whole numbers from 00 to 77. Their product is 00 when a die shows 11 (1515 rolls) and is exactly 11 only when both dice show 22 (11 roll). Every other roll works: 64−16=4864 - 16 = 48, giving 34\frac{3}{4}.

Concise solution

A shorter write-up, the way contest solutions are usually written. It may take a different route from the solution above.

Call the rolls mm and nn; there are 8⋅8=648 \cdot 8 = 64 equally likely ordered pairs. The condition mn>m+nmn > m + n rearranges as mn−m−n>0mn - m - n > 0; adding 11 to both sides makes the left side factor:
(m−1)(n−1)>1.(m - 1)(n - 1) > 1.

Both factors are integers from 00 to 77, so the inequality fails in exactly two situations:

  • a factor is 00, i.e. m=1m = 1 or n=1n = 1: 8+8−1=158 + 8 - 1 = 15 pairs (the pair (1,1)(1,1) is counted once);
  • the product is exactly 11, i.e. m=n=2m = n = 2: 11 pair.

That is 1616 failing pairs, so 64−16=4864 - 16 = 48 pairs satisfy the condition, and the probability is
4864=34.\frac{48}{64} = \frac{3}{4}.

The answer is (C) 34\boxed{\textbf{(C)}\ \frac{3}{4}}.

Review in the AoPS books

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Problem © Mathematical Association of America (MAA), American Mathematics Competitions. Reproduced for non-commercial educational use. Solution and commentary are original to this site.