AMC 10 Step by Step

2002 AMC 10A Problem 4

P1-10~1 minPrint

For how many positive integers mm does there exist at least one positive integer n such that m⋅n≤m+nm \cdot n \le m + n ?

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Key insight

The question needs just one n for each m. Try n = 1: the rule becomes m is at most m + 1, which is true for every m.

Solution

Read the question carefully: for each mm, we only need one positive integer nn that works. So try the easiest possible nn.

  1. Try an example. Take m=5m = 5 and n=1n = 1. Then m⋅n=5m \cdot n = 5 and m+n=6m + n = 6. Since 5≤65 \le 6, the rule holds, so m=5m = 5 counts.

2. Try it for any mm. With n=1n = 1, the left side is m⋅1=mm \cdot 1 = m and the right side is m+1m + 1. A number is always less than that number plus one, so
m≤m+1m \le m + 1
is true for every positive integer mm.

  1. So every positive integer mm has a partner, namely n=1n = 1. There are infinitely many positive integers.

The answer is (E) infinitely many\boxed{\textbf{(E)}\ \text{infinitely many}}.

Why this works

"There exists at least one nn" means a single example is enough. Before doing algebra with two unknowns, test the simplest values like 11; if one of them works for every case, you are done. The small numbers in the answer choices are there to tempt students who count all working pairs instead.

Alternative approach

Move everything to one side: mn−m−n≤0mn - m - n \le 0. Adding 11 to both sides lets the left side factor:
mn−m−n+1=(m−1)(n−1),so(m−1)(n−1)≤1.mn - m - n + 1 = (m - 1)(n - 1), \quad\text{so}\quad (m-1)(n-1) \le 1.
When n=1n = 1 the left side is (m−1)×0=0(m-1) \times 0 = 0, which is at most 11 for every mm. So again every mm works. (Other values of nn work only for a few small mm, for example m=n=2m = n = 2.)

Concise solution

A shorter write-up, the way contest solutions are usually written. It may take a different route from the solution above.

The question only asks whether some positive integer nn works for a given mm, so try the simplest candidate, n=1n = 1. The inequality becomes
m⋅1≤m+1,m \cdot 1 \le m + 1,
which holds for every positive integer mm.

Thus every one of the infinitely many positive integers mm has a partner nn.

The answer is (E) infinitely many\boxed{\textbf{(E)}\ \text{infinitely many}}.

Review in the AoPS books

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Problem © Mathematical Association of America (MAA), American Mathematics Competitions. Reproduced for non-commercial educational use. Solution and commentary are original to this site. Also appeared as 2002 12A #6.