AMC 10 Step by Step

2018 AMC 10B Problem 6

P1-10~2 minPrint

A box contains 55 chips, numbered 1,2,3,4,1, 2, 3, 4, and 55 . Chips are drawn randomly one at a time without replacement until the sum of the values drawn exceeds 44 . What is the probability that 33 draws are required?

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Key insight

Three draws are needed exactly when the first two chips add to 4 or less, which only happens for the pairs 1 and 2 or 1 and 3.

Solution

Three draws are needed when the first two chips do not yet add to more than 44, and the third chip then pushes the total over 44.

1. Which first two chips add to 44 or less? Two different chips from 11 to 55:
- 1+2=31 + 2 = 3 (at most 44)
- 1+3=41 + 3 = 4 (at most 44)
- every other pair, like 1+4=51 + 4 = 5 or 2+3=52 + 3 = 5, is already more than 44.

So only the pairs {1,2}\{1, 2\} and {1,3}\{1, 3\} keep the drawing going.
2. Does the third draw always stop it? After {1,2}\{1,2\} the total is 33 and the smallest chip left is 33, giving at least 66. After {1,3}\{1,3\} the total is 44 and the smallest chip left is 22, giving at least 66. So yes, the third draw always finishes.
3. Count. The first two chips form one of (52)=10\binom{5}{2} = 10 pairs, all equally likely. Two of them work, so the probability is
210=15.\frac{2}{10} = \frac{1}{5}.

The answer is (D) 15\boxed{\textbf{(D)}\ \frac{1}{5}}.

Why this works

"Exactly three draws" means "not finished after two, finished after three." Here the second part always happens, so the whole question becomes counting pairs with a small sum. Just be sure the favorable cases and the total are counted the same way (both as pairs, or both in order).

Alternative approach

Count in order. The first two draws can happen in 5×4=205 \times 4 = 20 orders. The good ones are (1,2)(1,2), (2,1)(2,1), (1,3)(1,3), (3,1)(3,1), which is 44 orders. The probability is 420=15\frac{4}{20} = \frac{1}{5}.

Concise solution

A shorter write-up, the way contest solutions are usually written. It may take a different route from the solution above.

Three draws are required exactly when the first two draws do not already exceed 44, but the third draw does.

Two distinct chips from {1,2,3,4,5}\{1, 2, 3, 4, 5\} sum to at most 44 only for the pairs {1,2}\{1, 2\} (sum 33) and {1,3}\{1, 3\} (sum 44). In either case the smallest remaining chip is at least 22, so the third draw pushes the total past 44 automatically. Hence "three draws" is the same event as "the first two chips are {1,2}\{1,2\} or {1,3}\{1,3\}."

There are (52)=10\binom{5}{2} = 10 equally likely unordered pairs for the first two chips, and 22 of them work:
210=15.\frac{2}{10} = \frac{1}{5}.

The answer is (D) 15\boxed{\textbf{(D)}\ \frac{1}{5}}.

Review in the AoPS books

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Problem © Mathematical Association of America (MAA), American Mathematics Competitions. Reproduced for non-commercial educational use. Solution and commentary are original to this site.