AMC 10 Step by Step

2008 AMC 10A Problem 22

P21-25~5 minPrint

Jacob uses the following procedure to write down a sequence of numbers. First he chooses the first term to be 6. To generate each succeeding term, he flips a fair coin. If it comes up heads, he doubles the previous term and subtracts 1. If it comes up tails, he takes half of the previous term and subtracts 1. What is the probability that the fourth term in Jacob's sequence is an integer?

Log in to save your progress.
Show solution without answering

Key insight

Only three coin flips matter, so list all eight paths and follow the actual numbers. Five of the eight fourth terms are whole numbers.

Solution

1. The first term is 66 with no flip. The second, third and fourth terms each need one flip, so there are three flips and 2×2×2=82 \times 2 \times 2 = 8 equally likely ways they can go.
2. Eight cases is few enough to list. Write H for heads (double, then subtract 11) and T for tails (halve, then subtract 11). Follow the numbers from 66.
3. Second term. H: 2×6−1=112 \times 6 - 1 = 11. T: 6÷2−1=26 \div 2 - 1 = 2.
4. Third term.
- From 1111: H gives 2121; T gives 5.5−1=4.55.5 - 1 = 4.5.
- From 22: H gives 33; T gives 1−1=01 - 1 = 0.
5. Fourth term.

PathFourth termWhole number?
H H H2×21−1=412 \times 21 - 1 = 41yes
H H T10.5−1=9.510.5 - 1 = 9.5no
H T H2×4.5−1=82 \times 4.5 - 1 = 8yes
H T T2.25−1=1.252.25 - 1 = 1.25no
T H H2×3−1=52 \times 3 - 1 = 5yes
T H T1.5−1=0.51.5 - 1 = 0.5no
T T H2×0−1=−12 \times 0 - 1 = -1yes
T T T0−1=−10 - 1 = -1yes
  1. Five of the eight paths end at a whole number, so the probability is 58\frac{5}{8}.

The answer is (D) 58\boxed{\textbf{(D)}\ \frac{5}{8}}.

Why this works

With only eight cases, a neat list is faster and safer than a clever shortcut. Keep the real numbers, not just "whole or not": doubling can turn a half, like 4.54.5, back into a whole number. A table with one row per path makes sure no case is missed.

Concise solution

A shorter write-up, the way contest solutions are usually written. It may take a different route from the solution above.

The first term needs no flip, so the fourth term is determined by three flips: 23=82^3 = 8 equally likely sequences. Write HH for "double, then subtract 11" and TT for "halve, then subtract 11," and trace every path from 66.

After flip 1: H→11H \to 11, T→2T \to 2.

After flip 2:
- from 1111: H→21H \to 21, T→4.5T \to 4.5;
- from 22: H→3H \to 3, T→0T \to 0.

After flip 3:
- from 2121: H→41H \to 41, T→9.5T \to 9.5;
- from 4.54.5: H→8H \to 8, T→1.25T \to 1.25;
- from 33: H→5H \to 5, T→0.5T \to 0.5;
- from 00: H→−1H \to -1, T→−1T \to -1.

The eight fourth terms are 41, 9.5, 8, 1.25, 5, 0.5, −1, −141,\ 9.5,\ 8,\ 1.25,\ 5,\ 0.5,\ -1,\ -1. Five of them are integers.

The probability is 58\frac{5}{8}, so the answer is (D) 58\boxed{\textbf{(D)}\ \frac{5}{8}}.

Review in the AoPS books

Similar problems

Problem © Mathematical Association of America (MAA), American Mathematics Competitions. Reproduced for non-commercial educational use. Solution and commentary are original to this site.