Each of balls is randomly and independently painted either black or white with equal probability. What is the probability that every ball is different in color from more than half of the other balls?
- A)
- B)
- C)
- D)
- E)
Answer
D
Key insight
A black ball needs at least 3 white balls and a white ball needs at least 3 black, so the split must be exactly 3-3: C(6,3)/2^6 = 20/64.
Solution
For any one ball, the "other" balls number , so "more than half" means at least of them have the opposite color.
Suppose balls are black and are white. A black ball (if any) sees white balls among the others, so we need , i.e. . A white ball (if any) sees black balls, so we need . Both colors must be present (if all six were black, each ball would differ from others), so both conditions apply and exactly.
Conversely, with black and white, every ball differs from exactly of the other , which is more than half. So the event is exactly "three of each color."
There are equally likely colorings, of which have three black balls:
The answer is .
Why this works
A condition that must hold for every ball usually collapses to a statement about the overall color count. Write the condition once for a black ball and once for a white ball; the two inequalities pin the count from both sides. Then the probability is a single binomial coefficient over .
The trap
Testing only one ball's condition and accepting 4-2 splits, or forgetting that the 'other' balls number 5, so 'more than half' means at least 3.
Common mistakes
- Testing only one ball's condition and accepting 4-2 splits, or forgetting that the 'other' balls number 5, so 'more than half' means at least 3.
- Counting the - colorings as by treating the two colors as interchangeable, which gives .
Techniques
Bound the quantity above/below or estimate to pin it down · Set up the equation/formula and compute; no special trick needed